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Delta Pronunciation in Greek

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egyptianhomeboy

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 03:39 AM

I know that if I ask this question, I'm going to get some complicated answers...

so let's begin! Smile

According to the Greco-Bohairic rules, we pronounce the delta (d) as a hard 'th' (as in the word 'thee'). Now, in the hymns where Greek words are used, do we pronounce them the same? Or do we pronounce them as a regular 'd'?

I'm only talking about the way that would make the most sense...in the modern era lol. I can't tell the difference between Koine (btw, how is that word pronounced? like 'coin'?) or Attic Greek.

For example, the word orthodidaxonton in Pinishti...


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deaddog

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 04:25 AM

Erasmian and Historic Attic Greek do have the letter "D".
Biblical and modern Greek do not have "D" they have as "Th" almost a "Z" sound but with your tongue sticking a bit out.

Erasmian was never spoken. Historic Attic is too old. So the pronounciation is probably coming from the Biblical Greek which was spoken in the apostolec era and few centuries after that. Modern is too new.
So in my humble opinion it should sound "Z" because it's probably coming from biblical greek.

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Ramez Mikhail

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 05:39 AM

I agree with deaddog.

It is widely accepted in academic circles that Classic pronunciation of delta is just D. It is also widely known and accepted that Koine (pronounced koi-nay) is a dh (th in thee). It is also like that in Byzantine and Modern Greek...so now u know how a delta should be pronounced in Greek....its has mostly been a Dh except in the Classic era which is of little relevance to us.

so Ortho-dhi-dhaxandwn.....those who taught right and truth. Ortho: straight...dhidhaxw: I teach (didache)

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mgeorge

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 11:24 AM

Dear Ramez,
isn't the word "Koine" pronounced as "Keen-ae" according to the Koine pronounciation (hehe... what a sentence.), since the diaphthong 'oi' is pronounced as a 'long e' sound ('ee'). I am no expert in greek, but I think I read in my NT greek language book that the modern and the biblical pronounciation is long e. besides when I talked to the greek orthodox preist, he corrected my pronounciation to "keen-ae".
Again I am no expert in greek... yet. your input will be appreciated.


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MikeS

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 02:02 PM

Hello all,

Yes, in Classical Greek (Attic as well as other dialects), it was the 'd' in "dog". In the Koine (pron. kee-NEE) period, the pronunciation gradulally changed to the voiced 'th' sound (the 'th' in "thee"). It has been pronounced as such ever since this time.

Much to my chagrin Wink it's very often pronounced as a 'z' by speakers of Arabic - I'm not quite sure why as Arabic (I think) has a perfectly good voiced 'th' sound!

To confuse matters (a bit anyway),in the Greco-Bohairic pronunciation 'delta' varies between 'th' (often transliterated as 'dh') and 'd'. In Traditional/Old Bohairic, it's 'd' across the board - as this is the pronunciation it received in Greek at the time the letter was borrowed.

Egyptian never had a 'dh' sound.

Mike S.

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Ramez Mikhail

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 03:23 PM

mgeorge and Mike, you guys are right. It would be Ke-nee in Modern pronunciation. Never thought about that one before.I guess I always treated Koine as though it was an English word...which it pretty much is for our purposes and uses. But since when do we apply modern Greek rules to Greek loan words and technical terms? We don't say pnevmonia for example (i keep using that example for some reason..hehe)

Mike,

I am speculating that the reason why Egyptians render a delta as a Z (ive even seen it transliterated that way in service books) is exactly because Egyptian never had a dh sound.It is probably also why Egyptians butcher the same phoneme even in Arabic itself.True, Arabic has a dh, but the Egyptian colloquial variety of it either renders it as a Z or sometimes (surprise surprise) a D.

Also, you said the following:

this is the pronunciation it received in Greek at the time the letter was borrowed.

I always thought it common sense that this is what happened...sure. Then how come the OB reconstructed system claims sound values that are very much different from Classical Greek, despite the fact that MOSt of the alphabet is Greek? In other words, why does OB still sound nothing like Attic? In fact, shouldnt OB sound like Koine since the alphabet was borrowed around the koine era?

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Remnkemi

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posted on Oct 12, 2005 - 10:59 PM

From Ramez Mikhail:Then how come the OB reconstructed system claims sound values that are very much different from Classical Greek, despite the fact that MOSt of the alphabet is Greek? In other words, why does OB still sound nothing like Attic? In fact, shouldnt OB sound like Koine since the alphabet was borrowed around the koine era?

There is a very simple answer to your question, Ramez.

Even though the alphabet was borrowed during the Koine era, the pronunciation remained Egyptian or Ancient Egyptian (or Demotic really). The alphabet system/orthography was introduced to facilitate writing and it attempted to "modernize" Coptic with the defacto language Greek. There was a problem. The linguistic sounds are not similar in Coptic as it is in Greek for similiar letters. And even though Greek vocabulary was also introduced, Copts could not render the same sounds.

Also Coptic vocabulary, which people pronounced in the OB scheme, suddenly inheritied a new alphabet system that didn't share the same sounds. Of course, the Copts of that time realistically would not automatically relearn to pronounce their entire language. Gradually the pronunciation was left the same and people learned how to spell words with the new alphabet.

In the 1800's, A. Moftah tried to enforce Koine grammar and pronunciation rules on Coptic in a political attempt to unite the Coptic and Greek churches. However, it was still foreign. It actually took years for GB to not be foreign but it never fully replaced OB because there are still some residual OB characteristics found in GB.

Does that answer your question?
George


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Ramez Mikhail

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posted on Oct 13, 2005 - 01:04 AM

well, George. I dont think its that simple a generalization. Let's take some letters as examples and see if this makes sense...and i am not necessarily citing examples to refute what u are saying, simply thinking out loud here:

Chi (X): It had already become a fricative by the koine era..and to me that sounds closest to the coptic letter khai Q in sound value. Now I thought OB Chi is just K...just like it was in Classic Greek. Now if Coptic borrowed the Greek alphabet in koine, and corrupted the sound values a bit because of OB tendencies or egyptian tendencies...wouldnt Chi be pronounced like its closest relative, as a Kh..which sure existed in Egyptian phonology?

i am tired of thinking of other examples..hehe...gotta go back to linguistics hw, but that one right there kinda bothers me already.

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MikeS

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posted on Oct 13, 2005 - 11:43 AM

Ramez,

In answer to your question - which George posted an answer - yes, he's right, but the thing to keep in mind is that, although Coptic/Egyptian borrowed Greek graphemes (letters) as they were pronounced in Greek at the time, one must keep in mind that neither language was static; Egyptian kept on developing as well as Greek, but those developments were totaly independant of each other.

One of the things that happened in Egyptian shortly after Greek graphemes were borrowed is a major shift in stop consonants; this accounts for the major differences between Greek and OB. I have these changes outlined in a study I had done regarding Old/Traditional Bohairic pronunciation - if you's like I'd be happy to forward it to you under seperate cover(If I recall corectly, I think I converted it to PDF format so there's be no need of playing around with fonts on your PC). I also did one on Greek loans in Coptic (including the alphabet and the sound corespondenses) - I can send that along too.

As far as Greek 'chi' goes, that's a really interesting one! When the sound was borrowed from Greek to Coptic - well, let me back up a bit -Greek, as I'm sure you may know, didn't change overnight; it was very gradual, so you had a period where most of the changes between what we call Classical Greek and Koine had taken place but there were still some remnants of Classical Greek in Early Koine.

So, with 'chi' - it was in Classical Greek and Early Koine pronounced as 'kh', that is, an aspirated 'k'. Coptic borrowed this sound with the same pronunciation as Greek because at the time, Coptic had aspirated stops. We can, for the sake of convenience, call this period of Coptic "Early Coptic".

Eventually what happened in Greek is that it too lost it's aspirates (Aspirated stops seem to have been a common feature in early Indo-European languages, but for whatever reason, quickly died out as a phonemic feature) - In Greek, the aspirates over time became africates, so by the Late Koine period, 'chi' received the pronunciation of /x/, but had the allophone of /ç/ in the environment of front vowels.

In Coptic, 'chi' essentally lost its aspiration and became /k/ in native Coptic/Egyptian words. In Greek loans, it has the /x/ sound, however the allophone in the environment of front vowels is different; Coptic does not have a /ç/ sound so had to replace it with the closest thing which is the 'sh' sound. This three way pronunciation of 'chi' in Coptic is the same in OB as in GB.

Ecclesiastical Greek, by the way, is a very Late Koine, one could almost say a very Early Modern Greek. With the exception of a few sounds, it's almost the same as Modern Greek.

Anyway, these changes are outlined in much more detail in my little "studies", so let me know if you'd like a copy to take a look at.

Thanks on the explanation of the 'z' for delta by Arabic speakers!! I'm not at all overly familiar with Arabic, but I thought Classical Arabic had/has a 'dh' sound - or maybe it's just something that's dialectal depending on what "Arabic" one speaks (Saudi Arabic, Gulf Arabic, Egyptian Arabic, etc. etc.)?

Mike S

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Ramez Mikhail

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posted on Oct 13, 2005 - 03:48 PM

Mike,

Thanks for the clarification. I would love to read your papers especially the one about Greek loan words and anything else you may have written on Greek language.

Just to clarify, Standard Arabic does indeed have a Dh. But the further away you move from the Arabian peninsula, the more different the colloquial dialect of arabic is. Indeed, Arabic in Morocco and Muritania is almost a different language alltogether. That is why the Egyptian variety, having developed away from the Arabic Peninsula and being deeply influenced by the original language in the region (i.e. Coptic), doesnt have the Dh....which, correct me if i am wrong did not exist in Coptic around the time of the Arab invasion.

Same goes with Th. Also correct me if i am wrong, my knowledge of Old Bohairic is very minimal....was there a th? I do know however that it is also a common feature of Egyptian Arabic to replace the proper arabic "th" with a T or an S.

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MikeS

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posted on Oct 13, 2005 - 05:49 PM

Thanks for the further clarification of Arabic - I've heard the differences can be as much as, say, Spanish is from French!

PM me with an e-mail address and I'l lbe happy to pass it along to you.

Mike S

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ophadeece

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posted on Dec 22, 2007 - 08:08 PM

Dear MikeS,
Not sure if you are an active member anymore, but I read this thread, that was cross-linked from another, and the last reply was two years ago. However, if you still read posts here, I am interested to read your study on the Greek language and its relation to the Coptic. My e-mail address is: ophadece@gmail.com... Looking forward to hearing from you soon...
God bless you and pray for us a lot

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MikeS

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posted on Dec 24, 2007 - 12:56 AM

Dear Ophadeece,

I'm not as active a member as I have been in the past due to changes in my job and the "free time" I no longer have as much of.


I'm sure I still have these studies on disc somewhere - I'll hunt them down and get a copy to you as soon as possible - may not be until some point in January.

Mike S

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ophadeece

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posted on Dec 24, 2007 - 08:36 AM

Dear Mike S,
Thank you very much for your quick reply. God bless you with your work and all what your hands reach out for. As I told you before, there is no rush, and you can take all your time in the world. Don't worry; just send it to me whenever you can. I just hope I am not imposing too much on you.
God bless you and pray for us a lot

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