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Anti-Semitism in Pascha Prayers?

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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 15, 2008 - 08:34 PM

Remnkemi,

(Note, the 2nd to last paragraph will explain why I responded to you the way I did).

Thank you for the elementary lesson. Paradise and Hades are the waiting places those that will be going to Heaven and Hell wait at respectively. Clearly the fact I'm talking about Heaven and Hell (and the fact that I've mentioned judgment day in almost every post in this thread) means I'm talking about the final judgment.

The fact that YOU said Heaven means you were talking about what's coming after Judgment Day too (and I'm absolutely sure of this now since you know the difference between Paradise and Heaven). The fact that you said they will go to "some place other than Heaven" means they are going to Hell. There is no third option.

You see, I'm not putting words in your mouth, I'm simply pointing out the logical implications of the words that you said. Now you say there will only be a "new Heaven" and a "hell." WELL, in your first post, you've said that we can't say they're going to hell, but we can say they're not going to Heaven.

I know what the Bible says, scroll up if you'd like a preview. My point is whether the NT is the final word.

You said that if there's "another testament" after the NT, it'd have to be by someone higher than Jesus. That implies that any testament has to be by someone higher than the previous testament. That means Christ (NT) is higher than the Father (OT). Pure blasphemy. So, when you reduce my whole point to being blasphemy BY saying something blasphemous yourself, what do you think my reply is going to be like?

____

P.S. who told you I'm judging others? Your whole post is moot. I've always said, "according to the NT." You YOURSELF said, "the Bible says they won't go to Heaven."

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the_youngest

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 12:20 AM

i just wanted to share something with everyone on this thread

1. the right thief was not baptized, yet Jesus told him "Today you will be with me in paradise. Does this imply that Jesus is contradicting Himself when he said all the verses posted above concerning who will go to heaven? NO! But according to human logic he is.

Therefore if you did not know what Jesus' answer was when the thief told Him "Remember me o Lord when You come into your kingdom", you would think according to human logic that 'no he can't enter the Kingdom of Heaven since he is not baptized of water and spirit and is not a Christian and did not partake of Jesus' body and blood'

my point is that God is merciful and we cannot ASSUME what He will do because we are not the ones forgiving and we are not the ones deciding who will go where. and also like others said in this thread, we should be more concerned with our own salvation

Another point

2. we believe that life starts at conception! so what do you say will happen to babies who die prematurely or they die as babies a few days or weeks old. will they go to heaven or hell? the answer that all the fathers give is that WE SIMPLY DONT KNOW. we pray that God will have mercy on them but we still don't know what will happen. does that mean that there is another place other than heaven and hell? NO! it just means that we don't know!

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Meghalo05

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 12:26 AM

Very well said the youngest. God bless you for your wisdom.

Glory to God in all things

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Hisservant

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:01 AM

From the_youngest:i just wanted to share something with everyone on this thread

1. the right thief was not baptized, yet Jesus told him "Today you will be with me in paradise. Does this imply that Jesus is contradicting Himself when he said all the verses posted above concerning who will go to heaven? NO! But according to human logic he is.

Therefore if you did not know what Jesus' answer was when the thief told Him "Remember me o Lord when You come into your kingdom", you would think according to human logic that 'no he can't enter the Kingdom of Heaven since he is not baptized of water and spirit and is not a Christian and did not partake of Jesus' body and blood'

my point is that God is merciful and we cannot ASSUME what He will do because we are not the ones forgiving and we are not the ones deciding who will go where. and also like others said in this thread, we should be more concerned with our own salvation

Another point

2. we believe that life starts at conception! so what do you say will happen to babies who die prematurely or they die as babies a few days or weeks old. will they go to heaven or hell? the answer that all the fathers give is that WE SIMPLY DONT KNOW. we pray that God will have mercy on them but we still don't know what will happen. does that mean that there is another place other than heaven and hell? NO! it just means that we don't know!


Your second point is irrelevant because it was mentioned those who do were not taught anything about Christ, and don't even have a choice have their own judgment. So your second point is meaningless.

To address your first point. The Right hand thief confessed that Christ was the Lord. He had no chance of baptism, he was crucified next to God, and he isn't going to come down until he is dead. The second thing is were any of the disciples at that time if they were to die, going to go to heaven? Yes. Because they confessed that Christ is God, at that time, there was no sacrament really except for communion which had been established the day before, Baptism and Confirmation and the other Sacraments were not really used until after the descent of the Holy Spirit. Therefore we can not go by what happened to the thief on the cross, or anything else until the descent of the Holy Spirit, where now those who know who Christ is but reject Him, will go to hell. Those who do not have any Knowledge of Christ, have their own judgment, that is up to God.

IF YOU REJECT CHRIST WILLINGLY, HE WILL REJECT YOU.


It can't be any clearer and as I said before, I will get confirmation of ALL of the information I am saying, even though everything I am saying is all just repeating what I have been taught.


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Hisservant

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:05 AM

From Meghalo05:Remnkemi,
The Bible judges them, not us. The Bible says they will not go to heaven. Where they will go is not clear. And we can't use logic to assume anything because then we will judge them.


Ok help me understand, if they are not going to heaven then where are they going, you have 2 choices, purgatory, which would be a heresy so that can't be it, hmm seems like we have one choice left..... God gave us the capacity to solve this one, if not heaven then it must be hell.... unless there is another place of which I do not know....


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the_youngest

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:26 AM

to HisServant

i respect what you said but i just wanted to say that i made these points to get the meaning from behind them

1. what you were supposed to get from this one is that God is merciful and we cannot ASSUME what He will do because we are not the ones forgiving and we are not the ones deciding who will go where

2. what you were supposed to get from this point is that there is no place other that heaven and hell

that's all

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copt07

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:33 AM

Agape,

From the_youngest:

"i just wanted to share something with everyone on this thread

1. the right thief was not baptized, yet Jesus told him "Today you will be with me in paradise. Does this imply that Jesus is contradicting Himself when he said all the verses posted above concerning who will go to heaven? NO! But according to human logic he is."

I would like to point out that the thief on the right hand was indeed baptized. The baptism the thief received was true baptism in blood and death. Just as St. Paul speaks about in Romans 6:3-4:

"Or do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? Therefore we were buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life."

So Christ is not contradicting Himself in the verses previously mentioned or based upon "human logic" that you claim. This is also the opinion of H.H. Pope Shenouda on this matter.

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the_youngest

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:41 AM

copt07

thank you for that clarification

and pray for me

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Biboboy

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 01:56 PM

Agape,

To answer the original question of this thread concerning the anti-jewish (note: not anti-semitic, but anti-jewish) statements of the expositions, we're required to find out when they added and why they were said during that period. My guess is that since the expositions were written in Arabic, perhaps that means they were written in the socio-historical context of Islamic dislike of Jews. It doesn't necessarily come out of our own theological and spiritual reflections. After all, the curse by which the Jews claimed on themselves and on their children when they crucified the Lord was already fulfilled when the Jerusalem and the Temple were destroyed by the Romans, so that curse doesn't apply to the Jews after that period.

The exposition is a rite, and if we can discover any problems or mistakes or something that doesn't address our spiritual lives today, it could be changed by addressing the issues to a bishop who can bring it forward to the Holy Synod.


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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 03:21 PM

Regards,

Concerning the right thief: I'm aware of what His Holiness said (and this is the prevailing view in Catholicism and Eastern Orthodoxy as well), but I have a different take. The much easier answer to how the thief can go to Paradise even though he wasn't baptised is simple. I will use what was pointed out already in Romans:

Romans 6:3-4:

"Or do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? Therefore we were buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life."

Well, when Christ gave the promise to the thief, Christ had not died and He had not risen. Since in baptism we are baptized into His death, baptism as necessary is impossible if He has not died. You can argue that Christ died before the thief, so it became possible (remember when they went to break their legs, they pointed out that Christ had already died). I'd reply that being risen with Him is the second part of baptism (and you can't rise with Christ if He had not yet risen). The right thief died a few minutes after Christ's death (breaking his leg effectively made it so he couldn't breath), Christ rose about 36 hours after His death.

Why do I reject the "baptized in blood" hypothesis? Because Christ explicitly said, "unless you are born of WATER and Spirit, you cannot enter." Of course you can argue that blood has water, which I cannot argue with. So, if that's the point, I don't see an issue.

What I don't have an answer for is why a lot of people who died during the 3rd century persecutions were said to have gone to heaven even though they were never baptized. Of course, here is where the blood argument really comes (infact, the blood argument was first used to address these people, THEN later used to explain how the right thief could go to Paradise). Either the Church is wrong and they didn't go to Heaven, or "blood includes water." OR, the requirements for salvation as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean.

__________

Hisservant,

I would be much more comfortable with your statements if you insert a "as far as we can tell..." before them. That leaves room for us misunderstanding what Christ said or what He said being fulfilled in some way which we cannot fathom. Like I've said before, if you go through the OT, you'll see an abundance of "absolute statements" that were fulfilled in the NT in ways no one could have thought of before Christ's coming.

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lowlyman

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 04:12 PM

I have a question:
can't our Lord Jesus Christ grant salvation to whomever he pleases?

Don't his words to the thief effect baptism, Christmation, and communion in the thief?

I believe the answers are yes!



From Truth.Seeker:Regards,

Concerning the right thief: I'm aware of what His Holiness said (and this is the prevailing view in Catholicism and Eastern Orthodoxy as well), but I have a different take. The much easier answer to how the thief can go to Paradise even though he wasn't baptised is simple. I will use what was pointed out already in Romans:

Romans 6:3-4:

"Or do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? Therefore we were buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life."

Well, when Christ gave the promise to the thief, Christ had not died and He had not risen. Since in baptism we are baptized into His death, baptism as necessary is impossible if He has not died. You can argue that Christ died before the thief, so it became possible (remember when they went to break their legs, they pointed out that Christ had already died). I'd reply that being risen with Him is the second part of baptism (and you can't rise with Christ if He had not yet risen). The right thief died a few minutes after Christ's death (breaking his leg effectively made it so he couldn't breath), Christ rose about 36 hours after His death.

Why do I reject the "baptized in blood" hypothesis? Because Christ explicitly said, "unless you are born of WATER and Spirit, you cannot enter." Of course you can argue that blood has water, which I cannot argue with. So, if that's the point, I don't see an issue.

What I don't have an answer for is why a lot of people who died during the 3rd century persecutions were said to have gone to heaven even though they were never baptized. Of course, here is where the blood argument really comes (infact, the blood argument was first used to address these people, THEN later used to explain how the right thief could go to Paradise). Either the Church is wrong and they didn't go to Heaven, or "blood includes water." OR, the requirements for the letter he wants as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean.

__________

Hisservant,

I would be much more comfortable with your statements if you insert a "as far as we can tell..." before them. That leaves room for us misunderstanding what Christ said or what He said being fulfilled in some way which we cannot fathom. Like I've said before, if you go through the OT, you'll see an abundance of "absolute statements" that were fulfilled in the NT in ways no one could have thought of before Christ's coming.

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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 04:27 PM

lowlyman,

I absolutely agree. You summed up what I have been trying to convey. Who would've thought that we would agree on something? A glorious moment!

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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 04:31 PM

P.S. what you said is what I meant by, "OR, the requirements for the letter he wants as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean." I just realized that statement doesn't make sense.

What I meant to say: "OR, the requirements for salvation as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean."

For the next two hours I will ponder what possessed me to write "the letter he wants" when I meant "salvation." There's no connection whatsoever. Hmmm.

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lowlyman

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 06:51 PM

We also agreed on who is to blame in this case.

Blessed lent

From Truth.Seeker:P.S. what you said is what I meant by, "OR, the requirements for the letter he wants as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean." I just realized that statement doesn't make sense.

What I meant to say: "OR, the requirements for salvation as applied to these people were not what we understand the NT to mean."

For the next two hours I will ponder what possessed me to write "the letter he wants" when I meant "salvation." There's no connection whatsoever. Hmmm.

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Hisservant

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 07:07 PM

From Truth.Seeker:Regards,
__________

Hisservant,

I would be much more comfortable with your statements if you insert a "as far as we can tell..." before them. That leaves room for us misunderstanding what Christ said or what He said being fulfilled in some way which we cannot fathom. Like I've said before, if you go through the OT, you'll see an abundance of "absolute statements" that were fulfilled in the NT in ways no one could have thought of before Christ's coming.


The thing is, after we sinned it was essential that Christ come down and be sacrificed or else no one could enter heaven. Now that Christ has been sacrificed and has Risen, what more is there to be done? All that is left is the end time, correct? Christ came for the sins of the past, present, and future. What else could cause there to be Another testament? What will it be called? the Newest testament? I don't think so. I think there is the Old Testament and the New one, and as far as I understand the church would have labeled all the prophecies in the NT, all of the verses that are labeled as a prophecy are pointing to the end of ages, so this another testament thing doesn't sound right. Now about us misunderstanding, I'm sure if we have misunderstood something, God would send someone to His people so that it could be fixed. Whenever someone does something wrong in the OT he sent someone to them... ex: Jonah. God wouldn't abandon His people with incorrect thoughts. Thats all I have to say about that.

According to a priest: The Church Interprets what it understands, what it doesn't understand, such as the things in Revelation, we do not interpret, and we will understand them as time comes on. Everything the Church says is definite.

If you think we might misunderstand then you doubt the Church.


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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 07:48 PM

1) For the record, whenever I said "another testament" I was merely meaning a change in the requirements as we understand them. I called this a "unilateral action" by God. I did not necessarily mean another "covenant."

Having clarified that, I won't delve into a discussion of the OT and NT because I don't think it's necessary. I see your point though. Your point is that the NT is talking about stuff until the end of time, and after the end of time, there's no testaments. I understand that. But again, when I say "another testament" I put it in quotes because that's not really what I mean. The reason I say "another testament" is to point out that requirements have changed between the OT and the NT; that means that the requirements CAN change.

2) As we discuss this, only about 15 million people are Coptic Orthodox, and about 70 million people are Oriental Orthodox. That is about (70 million/2 billion) 3.5% of Christianity. According to your premise, God would have presumably "sent someone" to tell the other 1.93 billion that they are wrong.

I agree with you that He sent out prophets in the OT to remind people of what's wrong. He doesn't have to do that because we have the Church to tell us that (leads me to your next point).

3) Your priest is obviously unaware of many other Coptic priests and bishops that HAVE interprted Revelations (whether right or wrong). Since you're talking about the notion of doubting the Church, I must point out some canonical aspects:

For something to be "infallible" it must be declared thus by a Holy Synod or an Ecumenical Council. I put "infallible" in quotes because decisions of Synods have been reversed in the past. The most famous one that comes to mind is a Synod where Sts. Cyril and Theophilus had St. John Chrysostom deposed. St. Chrysostom was only put back in the Church's books AFTER his death. In effect, that Synod was wrong. (Interestingly, the Church has Chrysostom right next to Cyril and Theophilus in the Liturgy during the Commemoration of the Saints).

So, there we have it, saints having deposed other saints. Anyway, there's a distinction between "procedural mistakes" and "doctrinal mistakes," in effect, a Synod could make a procedural mistake, but not a doctrinal mistake.

Absent a Synod proclaimation, what your priest says is not infallible, and I could easily be right while he is wrong. Infact, even our pope could make a mistake. I would be uncomfortable in my position if our Holy Synod got together and said, "All non-Christians will go to hell, this is a matter of doctrine." The Holy Synod has NOT done that.

Since the Holy Synod has not done that there is no Church doctrine for me to doubt. You would be surprised how often priests are wrong (it's alarming). I wouldn't take their word as the final thing.

That said, I have NEVER been told by a bishop (no matter how hard I have pushed in the past) that non-Christians will go to hell. You know what they say? "We teach what is necessary for salvation, but we leave judgment up to God." That statement would be meaningless if what's "necessary for salvation" does not change, because presumably anyone who doesn't do what's necessary for salvation will end up in hell, but they would NEVER say this.

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Hisservant

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 07:59 PM

From Truth.Seeker:1) For the record, whenever I said "another testament" I was merely meaning a change in the requirements as we understand them. I called this a "unilateral action" by God. I did not necessarily mean another "covenant."

Having clarified that, I won't delve into a discussion of the OT and NT because I don't think it's necessary. I see your point though. Your point is that the NT is talking about stuff until the end of time, and after the end of time, there's no testaments. I understand that. But again, when I say "another testament" I put it in quotes because that's not really what I mean. The reason I say "another testament" is to point out that requirements have changed between the OT and the NT; that means that the requirements CAN change.

2) As we discuss this, only about 15 million people are Coptic Orthodox, and about 70 million people are Oriental Orthodox. That is about (70 million/2 billion) 3.5% of Christianity. According to your premise, God would have presumably "sent someone" to tell the other 1.93 billion that they are wrong.

I agree with you that He sent out prophets in the OT to remind people of what's wrong. He doesn't have to do that because we have the Church to tell us that (leads me to your next point).

3) Your priest is obviously unaware of many other Coptic priests and bishops that HAVE interprted Revelations (whether right or wrong). Since you're talking about the notion of doubting the Church, I must point out some canonical aspects:

For something to be "infallible" it must be declared thus by a Holy Synod or an Ecumenical Council. I put "infallible" in quotes because decisions of Synods have been reversed in the past. The most famous one that comes to mind is a Synod where Sts. Cyril and Theophilus had St. John Chrysostom deposed. St. Chrysostom was only put back in the Church's books AFTER his death. In effect, that Synod was wrong. (Interestingly, the Church has Chrysostom right next to Cyril and Theophilus in the Liturgy during the Commemoration of the Saints).

So, there we have it, saints having deposed other saints. Anyway, there's a distinction between "procedural mistakes" and "doctrinal mistakes," in effect, a Synod could make a procedural mistake, but not a doctrinal mistake.

Absent a Synod proclaimation, what your priest says is not infallible, and I could easily be right while he is wrong. Infact, even our pope could make a mistake. I would be uncomfortable in my position if our Holy Synod got together and said, "All non-Christians will go to hell, this is a matter of doctrine." The Holy Synod has NOT done that.

Since the Holy Synod has not done that there is no Church doctrine for me to doubt. You would be surprised how often priests are wrong (it's alarming). I wouldn't take their word as the final thing.

That said, I have NEVER been told by a bishop (no matter how hard I have pushed in the past) that non-Christians will go to hell. You know what they say? "We teach what is necessary for salvation, but we leave judgment up to God." That statement would be meaningless if what's "necessary for salvation" does not change, because presumably anyone who doesn't do what's necessary for salvation will end up in hell, but they would NEVER say this.



I'm rather tired of arguing. You stick to whatever you want to believe and I will stick to what I was taught.

As I promised I said I will get confirmation on what I said, and I did. a Priest, three Servants, and a priest monk. This is the interpretation I was taught. I will stick to it.


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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 16, 2008 - 10:40 PM

Sure. Just do me a favor and ask them the following: "Can God change the requirements for salvation?" You can keep the answer to yourself or share it.

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mikokiko

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 02:30 AM

Don't forget to ask them "can God be sinful?"

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PeterA

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 02:44 AM

How about we all pray and fast, and worry about our own salvation first. And from that others will be attracted to the faith. So lets be the light and salt that is required of us. Smile


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mikokiko

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 02:54 AM

What does it mean to be a Christian?

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PeterA

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 03:24 AM

Believing in our triune God and living the Gospel. (living as Christ lived on earth).


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mikokiko

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 05:26 AM

Then I guess according to that definition I am not a Christian because I fail miserably everyday to live the Gospel faithfully, and if belief in the triune God is simply a proclamation, then I think salvation would have been a very easy task, but I think belief in the God who does all things by His Logos and in His Spirit, is much deeper than that. I think a better definition of a Christian is needed before we can further discuss whether 'non-christians' will make it to heaven or not.

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Misteka

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 12:45 PM

Good point and approach, mikokiko.

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Truth.Seeker

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posted on Apr 17, 2008 - 04:11 PM

Mikokiko,

A Christian is someone who lives out his/her life in a Sacramental and Biblical way (or you can take PeterA's definition as well, it's just as good). I don't think we need to deeply define "Christian" to ponder about non-Christians. At the very least, if you don't believe that Christ is Lord and God, you are not Christian. Whatever the definition of "non-Christian" is, can they be saved?

I'm not sure what you meant by "can God be sinful?" Obviously you think the answer is no. Do you mean to say the obvious answer to my question is "no?" Or do you mean to say if they answer my question with "no," then their answer to your question would be "yes," which is obviously wrong? If you would, tell me where you're going with that.

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