Truth.Seeker
posted on Apr 20, 2008 - 01:15 PM
In the Bible, there are seemingly absolute statements that can't be absolute compared to other parts of the Bible.
Example:
1 John 29: If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone who practices righteousness is born of Him.
Does St. John really mean anyone who does something good is born of Christ? Of course not, an atheist giving to charity is not born of Christ.
So, with that in mind, I'd say St. Paul just means all those who do not require something against God should be followed. If you look at verse 3 following the verses you mentioned: "3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to evil."
I think this is really the point here, St. Paul's saying the only reason you would want to disobey a ruler is if you want to do something bad. Of course worshipping God is not bad, so if your ruler wants to make you worship idols, then he is a terror to good works, not to evil.
So, I think that is the implied caveat.
The Bible uses the absolutes "all" and "no one" many times, many of which shouldn't be taken in that sense. For example, there are verses that talk about how EVERYONE in cities came out to greet someone. Technically, this would include people who are on their death-bed dying as well.
After much thought into this subject, I came to the conclusion that "all" just means "many," and "no one," just means "a few."
Granted, from logic, "all" should mean "all," and "no one" should mean "no one," but we don't know what the apostles had in mind when they wrote the gospels/epistles. People were probably not as "logically active" as we are in their times, so perhaps "all" was the best way to convey "many."
Perhaps a dive into the Greek may be helpful.
Joined: Feb 25, 2008 | Posts: 411