CopticPeachUK
posted on May 16, 2008 - 12:07 PM
Hello,
I am new here. Im pleased to meet u all. I've read a lot of your posts but have never posted before. This is my 1st time, so please excuse me if I have interrupted any dialogue so far.
My question is as follows:
During the passion week, we read the Homily of Saint John Chrysostom (one of my favourite theologians) on Covenant Thursday. I love this man's piety and honesty very much when I read his life story.
He says in his homily, however, that he is upset, and even uses the word "saddened" with the slothfulnes of hiscongregtion, and he complains about a general apathy towards the holy sacraments (and I think in Church also) as exhibted by his congregation.
He feels that they are careless towards the sacrament of the Eucharist, and gives an example saying that Judas, who was unworthy to have Communion, rather than it sanctify him, it condemned him.
Now, i'd like to know. As a Coptic Orthodox Christian, we believe that Judas did NOT in fact partake of the Holy Communion with the other apostles. So, if this is the case:
a) Why does our beloved Saint Chrysostom mention this?
b) Will such an anomaly cause/or should cause any division?
c) Why do we read it in the Church if the Church feels that such information is incorrect?? How would it expect its children to know the truth, when it teaches one thing, and yet practices another (with respet to dogma).
Many thanks,
ps. I'll be going to the UK soon. Is there anyone here from the UK that can orientate me with respect to which churches to go to, etc? I know a few people there already, but I don't know which churches they go to.
Many thanks again,
Please forgive me if I offended anyone. But I'd love to learn more about my beautiful Orthodox Church. The true and faithful Bride of Christ.
CP