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Coptic rite question...
Truth.Seeker
posted on Jul 03, 2008 - 03:18 PM
I've heard that if the bride is older by two or more years, a Bishop's consent is necessary. Being "hearsay", if I were you, I'd hold off on taking that as the official position until someone confirms it's right. I'm not sure if there's a restriction the other way.
abahoor
posted on Jul 03, 2008 - 11:07 PM
the only restriction that i think is there that they both are ready to get married, phyiscally.
There are very strong recommendation on the bride not being more then 2 years older or the groom not being more than 5 years older. I don’t think there is any bishop’s restrictions here….no one would know those specific people more then their father of confession. So I think the matter goes back to the priests.
Personally, I think it goes 5 years for the couple, also the view of a dear father I know. There are many factors that are in consideration but I won’t get into those details since others might would.
Truth.Seeker
posted on Jul 04, 2008 - 08:34 AM
Do you know that a Bishop's consent is not necessary for a fact, or did you conclude that because their priests knowing them best? Sometimes a Bishop's consent is required for things that a priest may know more about. My source was pretty confident with their information - just want to make sure (or rather, want to make sure Mike has the right answer, as I don't care much about the topic
).
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